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Salesforce Certified Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Dumps Questions Valid Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Materials [Q132-Q157]

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Salesforce Certified Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect  Dumps Questions Valid Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Materials

Current Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Exam Dumps [2024] Complete Salesforce Exam Smoothly


Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect certification exam is a rigorous test that evaluates a candidate's ability to design and implement scalable Salesforce solutions. Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect certification is highly valued in the industry and is recognized by Salesforce as a mark of excellence in Salesforce development and deployment. Passing the exam requires thorough preparation and a deep understanding of the Salesforce platform and its best practices. Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect certification is a valuable asset for professionals who want to advance their careers in Salesforce development and deployment.


To become a Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect, candidates must have a strong understanding of the Salesforce platform and its architecture, as well as hands-on experience in designing and deploying complex solutions. They should also have experience working with development teams, project managers, and other stakeholders to ensure successful delivery of projects.


Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect certification is highly respected in the Salesforce community and is recognized by employers and industry experts. Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect certification demonstrates the candidate's expertise in Salesforce development and deployment, making them a valuable asset to any organization. Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect certification also provides the candidate with an opportunity to expand their knowledge and skills in Salesforce development and deployment, allowing them to take on more complex projects and advance their career.

 

NEW QUESTION # 132
Universal Containers are concerned that after each release, reports and dashboards seem to roll back to previous versions. Executives spend many hours crafting these dashboards to perfectly meet their needs, and are now questioning the Salesforce platform's ability to save things, even data records.
What can the Salesforce architect advise to stop the rollbacks from happening?

  • A. Remove the executive's ability to change reports, and only allow developers to do that.
  • B. Ensure report metadata is exported daily and that it is merged into the developer branches before the next release.
  • C. Back up all the reports just before the release, then reimport them after the release,
  • D. Use a third-party data warehouse.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to stop the rollbacks from happening is to ensure report metadata is exported daily and that it is merged into the developer branches before the next release. This way, the reports and dashboards will be up to date and consistent across all environments. Using a third-party data warehouse is not a solution, as it does not address the root cause of the rollbacks. Removing the executive's ability to change reports is not a good practice, as it limits their flexibility and autonomy. Backing up and reimporting the reports before and after the release is not a reliable or scalable solution, as it can introduce errors and inconsistencies.


NEW QUESTION # 133
Universal Containers (UC) is working on a project to support environmental cleanup projects with specially designed containers. To support this project, UC is developing a portal for regulatory agencies to use for tracking and reporting of the containers, and these regulatory requirements are well-defined. Many non -regulatory requirements have not been defined yet. The project is on a strict budget and timeline. Which two approaches should UC consider to meet regulatory requirements and to satisfy the needs of end users? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Initiate an Agile project based on the known requirements, begin building immediately, and work through remaining requirements as they come up. Budget and timeline will not be a factor with an Agile methodology
  • B. Initiate an Agile project, beginning with a "sprint 0" to scope and estimate the project and to build the product backlog. Identify the minimum viable product. Initiate building the solution based on the backlog, and co -create the design with the project stakeholders
  • C. Initiate a waterfall project by gathering the remaining requirements and completing the architecture and design. Initiate the build/test processes with frequent reviews by the stakeholders. On build completion, perform acceptance testing and validate compliance with regulatory requirements
  • D. Initiate a waterfall project and start building the features of the solution based on regulatory requirements. In parallel, gather the remaining non -regulatory requirements for the solution, then go back and reconcile the two sets of requirements and re -work the solution as necessary

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 134
Universal Containers is validating an outbound change set from the Developer Sandbox to the production org.
Which two locking behaviors will occur during a deployment? Choose 2 answers

  • A. The production org will be locked. Users will still be able to Read/Write data to the org
  • B. The sandbox org will be locked. Administrators cannot modify metadata
  • C. The production org will be locked. Users can only Read data during this time
  • D. The production org will be locked. Administrators cannot modify metadata during this time

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A and D are the correct answers, as they are the locking behaviors that will occur during a deployment. A is correct, as the production org will be locked and administrators cannot modify metadata during this time, to prevent any conflicts or inconsistencies in the deployment. D is correct, as the production org will be locked and users will still be able to read/write data to the org, to minimize the impact on the business operations and user experience. B is incorrect, as the sandbox org will not be locked and administrators can still modify metadata, as the sandbox org is not the target of the deployment. C is incorrect, as the production org will not be locked and users can only read data during this time, as this would disrupt the business operations and user experience. You can learn more about the locking behaviors in the [Deploy Changes with Change Sets] unit on Trailhead.


NEW QUESTION # 135
Universal Containers has many development teams deploying into a single org. The business is very seasonal and approaching its busiest season. The business owner comes to you asking for your advice about its next major production release.
What best practice should an architect recommend?

  • A. Make declarative changes in production only.
  • B. Bypass regression testing for minor changes.
  • C. Avoid releasing near peak business periods.
  • D. Developers should conduct user acceptance testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The best practice for releasing near peak business periods is to avoid doing so, as it can cause disruption and risk to the business operations. Making declarative changes in production, bypassing regression testing, and having developers conduct user acceptance testing are all bad practices that can introduce errors and instability to the system.


NEW QUESTION # 136
Universal Containers has a stable continuous integration process and all stakeholders are happy. However, user testing takes long time, as data has to be setup. What should an Architect do to address this problem?

  • A. Test data creation is outside the scope of continuous integration.
  • B. Train business users to create test data more efficiently.
  • C. Advise the project manager to assign more users to create test data.
  • D. Include automated sample data during deployment.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 137
Universal Containers has a full sandbox that will be used to analyze and fix bugs found in production.
Which two items should the architect recommend to ensure that bugs found in production are more easily analyzed in this full sandbox?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Refresh the full sandbox after every deployment in production.
  • B. Before any deployment in production, the same process must be performed in this sandbox.
  • C. Perform a Refresh Data in the full sandbox.
  • D. Create a daily process of copying new and changed data in production to the full sandbox.

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 138
Universal Containers has a large call center that has a limited inventory and must ensure there is product availability before an Opportunity is marked as Closed. Custom Apex has been implemented to check inventory levels before an Opportunity is saved. What should an architect consider before recommending Performance testing?

  • A. Number of Apex Hammer failures
  • B. Number of unit tests
  • C. Number of debug log entries
  • D. Number of concurrent transactions

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The most important factor to consider before recommending Performance testing is the number of concurrent transactions, as this will affect the response time and throughput of the system. Option A is not relevant, as unit tests are used to verify the functionality and quality of the code, not the performance. Option B is not related, as Apex Hammer failures are used to check the compatibility of the code with new platform releases, not the performance. Option C is not helpful, as debug log entries are used to troubleshoot errors and issues, not the performance.


NEW QUESTION # 139
Universal Containers (UC) has four different business units (BUS) with different processes that share global customers. They have implemented a multi-org strategy with one org consolidating customer 360-degree view, and four orgs for the different BUS. Each of the BU orgs read and write customer information from/to the customer 360-degree view org in real time. UC is now launching a new BU that will use Salesforce. It does not share customers with the other BUS and needs flexibility in their Business processes.
What should an architect recommend as org strategy for this new BU

  • A. Use a new stand-alone Salesforce org for the new BU, not integrated with the others.
  • B. Use a new Salesforce org for the new BU, and customize integration so that it reads and writes customer information from the customer data org
  • C. Deploy the new BU in customer 360-degree view org, and read and write customer information from it without need of custom integration.
  • D. Use the same Salesforce org of another BU that shares geographical localization with the new BU.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The best option for the new BU is to use a new stand-alone Salesforce org, not integrated with the others. This will allow the new BU to have flexibility in their business processes, without affecting or being affected by the other BUs. Since the new BU does not share customers with the other BUs, there is no need to integrate with the customer 360-degree view org, which would add complexity and cost. Deploying the new BU in the customer 360-degree view org is not a good idea, as it would create confusion and duplication of data, as well as limit the customization options for the new BU. Using the same Salesforce org of another BU that shares geographical localization with the new BU is also not a good idea, as it would create conflicts and dependencies between the two BUs, as well as reduce the performance and security of the org. Using a new Salesforce org for the new BU, and customizing integration so that it reads and writes customer information from the customer data org is unnecessary and inefficient, as the new BU does not need to access or update the customer data of the other BUs.


NEW QUESTION # 140
Universal Containers (UC) wants to shorten their deployment time to production by controlling which tests to run in production. UC's Architect has suggested that they run only subsets of tests. Which two statements are true regarding running specific tests during deployments? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Specifying the test method is supported in DeployOptions, therefore specify only the test classes that are required to be executed.
  • B. Specify both test classes and individual test methods that are required to be executed as both are supported in DeployOptions.
  • C. run a subset of tests, set the RunLocalTests test level on the DeployOptions object and pass it as an argument to deploy() call.
  • D. To run a subset of tests, set the Run Specified Tests test level on the Deploy Options objects and pass it as an argument to deploy () call.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Explanation
To run a subset of tests, set the Run Specified Tests test level on the DeployOptions object and pass it as an argument to the deploy() call and specify only the test classes that are required to be executed, as specifying the test method is not supported in DeployOptions. These statements are true regarding running specific tests during deployments. The Run Specified Tests test level allows the developer to choose which tests to run in production, while specifying the test method is not a valid option for the DeployOptions object.


NEW QUESTION # 141
5. Universal Containers (UC) is planning to move to Salesforce Sales Cloud and retire its homegrown on-premise system. As part of the project, UC will need to migrate 5 million Accounts, 10million Contacts, and 5 million Leads to Salesforce.
Which three areas should be tested as part of data migration?
Choose 3 answers

  • A. Account and Lead ownership
  • B. Lead assignment
  • C. Page layout assignments
  • D. Contact association with correct Account
  • E. Data transformation against source system

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
Explanation
Three areas that should be tested as part of data migration are: data transformation against source system, contact association with correct account, and account and lead ownership. These areas can help ensure that the data is migrated correctly and accurately, and that the relationships and ownership are preserved. Lead assignment is not an area that should be tested as part of data migration, as it is a business process that is triggered after the data is migrated. Page layout assignments is also not an area that should be tested as part of data migration, as it is a configuration setting that is independent of the data. See Data Migration for more details.


NEW QUESTION # 142
Universal Containers CUC) is embarked on a large Salesforce transformation journey, UC's DevOps team raised a question about tracking Salesforce metadata throughout the development lifecycle across sandboxes all the way to production.
As the deployment architect of the project, what should be the recommendation to track which version of each feature in different environments?

  • A. Use Change Set to track deployed customizations.
  • B. Use an AppExchange or third-party tool that is specialized in Salesforce deployment.
  • C. Use an Excel sheet to track deployment steps and document the SFDX commands.
  • D. Use Salesforce SFDX commands to deploy to different sandboxes.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
To track Salesforce metadata throughout the development lifecycle across sandboxes and production, the architect should recommend using an AppExchange or third-party tool that is specialized in Salesforce deployment. These tools can provide features such as version control, dependency analysis, automated testing, and rollback capabilities. Using an Excel sheet to track deployment steps and document the SFDX commands is not a reliable or scalable solution, as it is prone to human errors and does not provide any automation or validation. Using ChangeSet to track deployed customizations is also not a good option, as ChangeSet is limited in the types of metadata it can deploy and does not support versioning or dependency management.
Using Salesforce SFDX commands to deploy to different sandboxes is a possible solution, but it requires a high level of technical expertise and does not provide a graphical interface or reporting capabilities.


NEW QUESTION # 143
Universal Containers is having trouble deploying metadata from SIT to UAT. UAT is complaining that it does not recognize some new Salesforce metadata types to be deployed. The deployment from Dev to SIT worked perfectly What could be the problem?

  • A. UAT is on a preview release and SIT is not.
  • B. SIT is on a preview release and UAT is not.
  • C. Use the DX command line instead.
  • D. There is no problem, this is expected behavior.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 144
Universal Containers CUC) is using Salesforce Performance Edition. They are planning to host weekly training sessions for the next four weeks. Each training will be five days long and a new set of trainees will attend every week. UC wants to train these users on samples of production data and delete all the data generated during the training session at the end of the week.
What optimal option should a technical architect recommend?

  • A. Refresh a Developer Pro sandbox every weekend and include an appropriate sandbox template.
  • B. Refresh a Developer Pro sandbox every weekend and load data needed using data loader.
  • C. Refresh a Partial Copy sandbox every weekend and load data needed using data loader.
  • D. Refresh a Partial Copy sandbox every weekend and include an appropriate sandbox template.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 145
Universal Containers (UC) uses a managed package to install an internal Sales app in five orgs. Within each org there are integrations and local processes with the objects of the managed package. UC wants to use unlocked packages for better integration with CI/CD processes.
What would the Salesforce architect recommend for this migration?

  • A. Migrate all classes, Visualforce, and components from the managed package to the unlocked package. Install the new version of the managed package (objects/fields only)
  • B. Do not change to unlocked package as it is possible to perform all CI/CD processes with the managed package.
  • C. Export all data from objects/fields of the managed package, uninstall it, install the unlocked package with the same namespace as the Managed package and restore all data.
  • D. Export all data from objects/fields of the managed package, uninstall it, install the unlocked package without namespace and restore all data.

Answer: C

Explanation:
and the unlocked package with the other components.


NEW QUESTION # 146
Which two ways should a developer working on a data loading integration that operates between different Salesforce environments insert multiple related records in one call or transaction?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Bulk API 2.0
  • B. REST API SObject Tree Request
  • C. REST API Composite Request
  • D. Streaming API

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 147
Universal Containers (UC) has been using Salesforce Sales Cloud for many years following a highly customized, single-org strategy with great success so far.
What two reasons can justify a change to a multi-org strategy?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. UC follows a unification enterprise architecture operating model by having orgs with the same processes implemented foreach business unit.
  • B. UC wants to use Chatter for collaboration among different business units and stop working in silos.
  • C. UC is launching a new line of business with independent processes and adding any new feature to it is too complex.
  • D. Acquired company that has its own Salesforce org and operates in a different business with its own set of regulatory requirements.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A change to a multi-org strategy can be justified by two reasons: launching a new line of business with independent processes and acquiring a company that has its own Salesforce org and operates in a different business with its own set of regulatory requirements. These reasons indicate that the single-org strategy is no longer feasible or optimal, as it would require too much customization, complexity, and compliance. Using Chatter for collaboration among different business units is not a reason to change to a multi-org strategy, as Chatter can work across multiple orgs. Following a unification enterprise architecture operating model is also not a reason to change to a multi-org strategy, as this model implies having orgs with the same processes implemented for each business unit, which is more suitable for a single-org strategy.


NEW QUESTION # 148
What two things are needed to delete metadata with a deploy() call?= Choose 2 answers

  • A. DestructiveChanges.xml file.
  • B. PurgeOnDelete option must be set to TRUE.
  • C. Package.XML file.
  • D. The CURRENT API version must be used.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
To delete metadata with a deploy() call, two things are needed: a package.xml file and a destructiveChanges.xml file. The package.xml file specifies the API version and the components to be deployed, while the destructiveChanges.xml file specifies the components to be deleted. The API version does not have to be the current one, as long as it is compatible with the components. The purgeOnDelete option is not required, as it only determines whether the deleted components are stored in the recycle bin or not.


NEW QUESTION # 149
Universal Containers (UC) has many different business units, all requesting new projects to be built into a single Salesforce Org. UC management is concerned with a lack of appropriate project properties and roadmap for the Salesforce ecosystem. What should an Architect recommend?

  • A. Create a Release Management Process.
  • B. Create project charters for each project.
  • C. Create a Center of Excellence with a charter document.
  • D. Use design Standards for Governance.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 150
Universal Containers has five development teams. The performance of the teams has been good, but the number of bugs has been increasing. After each sprint, they need more time to understand the code and make changes.
What are two ways to improve the performance?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Define a team that will analyze/approve all changes.
  • B. Define and follow code standards.
  • C. Version control system to identify who is generating the bugs.
  • D. Sprint review process.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Explanation
To improve the performance of the development teams, the following ways can be suggested: Define and follow code standards, and implement a sprint review process. Code standards can help ensure consistency, readability, and maintainability of the code, as well as reduce errors and bugs. A sprint review process can help evaluate the work done in each sprint, demonstrate the functionality, and gather feedback from the stakeholders and users.


NEW QUESTION # 151
Which are two characteristics of an effective communication plan? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Reporting project status, timelines, and impacts
  • B. Consistent communication to a pre -defined list of stakeholders
  • C. Requesting feedback for outstanding architectural questions
  • D. Communication to stakeholders on a "need -to -know" basis

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
A and C are the characteristics of an effective communication plan, as they enable feedback, collaboration, and transparency among the stakeholders. B is not a characteristic of an effective communication plan, as it does not account for changes in the stakeholder list or their communication preferences. D is not a characteristic of an effective communication plan, as it limits the information sharing and trust among the stakeholders.


NEW QUESTION # 152
Universal Containers has dozens of independent user acceptance and functional teams that need to test independently in isolation, and on current production data that was modified within the last week. Which Sandbox type should a Technical Architect recommend?

  • A. Developer Sandbox
  • B. Partial Copy Sandbox
  • C. Developer Pro Sandbox
  • D. Full Sandbox

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the correct answer because a partial copy sandbox can provide a subset of production data that is refreshed every 5 days. This way, the user acceptance and functional teams can test independently in isolation, and on current production data that was modified within the last week. A developer pro sandbox has a limited data storage and cannot store enough data for testing. A developer sandbox has no data and is only suitable for development and testing of code. A full sandbox can provide a complete copy of production data, but it can only be refreshed every 29 days, which may not meet the requirement of testing on data that was modified within the last week.


NEW QUESTION # 153
There has been an increase in the number of defects .Universal Containers (UC) found the root cause to be decreased in quality if code. Which two options can enforce code quality in UC's continuous integration process? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Increase the size of the testing team assigned to the project.
  • B. Introduce static code analysis before deployment to the testing sandbox.
  • C. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the testing sandbox.
  • D. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the production org.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 154
By to What three tools should an architect recommend to support application lifecycle methodology Choose 3 answers

  • A. Issue tracking Ttool
  • B. Continuous integration tool
  • C. Database management systems
  • D. Version control repository
  • E. Middleware

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 155
What sandbox type would be appropriate for diagnosing reports of poor performance when accessing certain Visualforce pages?

  • A. Partial copy Sandbox.
  • B. Developer Sandbox.
  • C. Full Sandbox
  • D. Developer Pro Sandbox.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 156
What are two advantages of using an Agile Project Management tool? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Better relationships with business stakeholders
  • B. Increased visibility into sprint and project status
  • C. Consolidate project artifacts to a common repository
  • D. Improve governance with gate steps in development

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
A and C are the advantages of using an Agile Project Management tool, as they provide visibility into the project progress and status, and consolidate the project artifacts in a common repository. B is not an advantage of using an Agile Project Management tool, as it depends on the communication and collaboration skills of the team members and stakeholders. D is not an advantage of using an Agile Project Management tool, as it is more related to the governance framework and methodology of the project


NEW QUESTION # 157
......

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