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Career Prospects

The specialists with the PMI CAMP certification are needed in every IT organization that has numerous clients and projects. Apart from IT, the certificate holders can pursue a career in alternative areas, such as finance, industrial engineering, and manufacturing industries. Some of the most popular job titles for the individuals with this certification include a Consultant, a Business Analyst, a Project Coordinator, and a Project Manager. Other positions that you can explore as well as the salary prospects associated with them are outlined below:

• Business Analyst ($68,000-$93,000)
• Senior Project Manager ($105,000-$126,000)
• Information Technology Project Manager ($95,000-120,000)
• Associate Project Manager ($87,000-$102,000)
• Project Coordinator ($53,000-$70,000)

 

NEW QUESTION # 512
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

• A. Matrix
• B. Affinity
• C. Fishbone
• D. Scatter

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Matrix diagrams. A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

NEW QUESTION # 513
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

• A. Exploring
• B. Avoidance
• C. Transference
• D. Mitigation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume C

NEW QUESTION # 514
In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

• A. Subcontracting teams
• B. Virtual teams
• C. Teamwork
• D. Team meetings

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 515
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

• A. Business partners
• B. Subject matter experts
• C. Customers or sponsors
• D. Functional managers

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Change Control Board (CCB). A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

NEW QUESTION # 516
Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

• A. Procurement audit
• B. Payment requests
• C. Performance reporting
• D. Lessons learned

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
12.4.3.2 Organizational Process Assets Updates
Elements of the organizational process assets that may be updated include, but are not limited to:
Procurement file. A complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, is

prepared for inclusion with the final project fles.
Deliverable acceptance. Documentation of formal acceptance of seller-provided deliverables may be

required to be retained by the organization. The Close Procurement process ensures this documentation requirement is satisfed. Requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and how to address nonconforming deliverables are usually defined in the agreement.
Lessons learned documentation. Lessons learned, what has been experienced, and process improvement

recommendations, should be developed for the project fle to improve future procurements.
12.4 Close Procurements
The process of completing each project procurement.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it documents agreements and related documentation for future reference.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Procurement documents
Tools & Techniques
1. Procurement audits
2. Procurement negotiations
3. Records management system
Outputs
1. Closed procurements
2. Organizational process assets updates

NEW QUESTION # 517
What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

• A. Communication technology
• B. Knowledge management
• C. Project complexity
• D. Procurement criteria

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 518
In an agile or adaptive environment, when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

• A. During the Initiation and Planning phases
• B. Only during the Initiation and Closing phases
• C. Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting
• D. During each iteration as the project progresses

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume E

NEW QUESTION # 519
As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

• A. Configuration verification and audit
• B. Work performance information
• C. Change requests
• D. Communication management activities

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 520
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

• A. tolerance
• B. response
• C. appetite
• D. management

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation
Explanation:
11 PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
[..]
Organizations perceive risk as the effect of uncertainty on projects and organizational objectives. Organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk depending on their risk attitude. The risk attitudes of both the organization and the stakeholders may be influenced by a number of factors, which are broadly classifed into three themes:
Risk appetite, which is the degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward.

Risk tolerance, which is the degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand.

Risk threshold, which refers to measures along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a

stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that risk threshold, the organization will accept the risk. Above that risk threshold, the organization will not tolerate the risk.
For example, an organization's risk attitude may include its appetite for uncertainty, its threshold for risk levels that are unacceptable, or its risk tolerance at which point the organization may select a different risk response.
Positive and negative risks are commonly referred to as opportunities and threats. The project may be accepted if the risks are within tolerances and are in balance with the rewards that may be gained by taking the risks. Positive risks that offer opportunities within the limits of risk tolerances may be pursued in order to generate enhanced value. For example, adopting an aggressive resource optimization technique is a risk taken in anticipation of a reward for using fewer resources.

NEW QUESTION # 521
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

• A. Histogram
• B. Flowchart
• C. Control chart
• D. Matrix diagram

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Control charts, are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
Upper and lower specification limits are based on requirements of the agreement. They reflect the maximum and minimum values allowed. There may be penalties associated with exceeding the specification limits. Upper and lower control limits are different from specification limits. The control limits are determined using standard statistical calculations and principles to ultimately establish the natural capability for a stable process. The project manager and appropriate stakeholders may use the statistically calculated control limits to identify the points at which corrective action will be taken to prevent unnatural performance. The corrective action typically seeks to maintain the natural stability of a stable and capable process. For repetitive processes, the control limits are generally set at ±3 s around a process mean that has been set at 0 s. A process is considered out of control when: (1) a data point exceeds a control limit; (2) seven consecutive plot points are above the mean; or (3) seven consecutive plot points are below the mean. Control charts can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
Although used most frequently to track repetitive activities required for producing manufactured lots, control charts may also be used to monitor cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, or other management results to help determine if the project management processes are in control.

NEW QUESTION # 522
What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?

• A. Monitor Communications
• B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
• C. Manage Communications
• D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 523
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

• A. Project charter
• B. Communications plan
• C. Procurement documents
• D. Stakeholder register

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Process: 13.1 Identify Stakeholders
Definition: The process of identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project; and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows the project manager to identify the appropriate focus for each stakeholder or group of stakeholders.
Inputs
* Project charter
* Procurement documents
* Enterprise environmental factors
* Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Stakeholder analysis
2. Expert judgment
3. Meetings
Outputs
1. Stakeholder register

NEW QUESTION # 524
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

• A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.
• B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
• C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
• D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
A primary function of a PMO is to support project managers in a variety of ways which may include, but are not limited to:
Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO;

Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and standards;

Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight;

Monitoring compliance with project management standards, policies, procedures, and templates by means of

project audits;
Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation

(organizational process assets); and
Coordinating communication across projects.

NEW QUESTION # 525
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

• A. Nominal group technique
• B. Affinity diagram
• C. The Delphi technique
• D. Brainstorming

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Delphi technique. The Delphi technique is a way to reach a consensus of experts. Project risk experts participate in this technique anonymously. A facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas about the important project risks. The responses are summarized and are then recirculated to the experts for further comment. Consensus may be reached in a few rounds of this process. The Delphi technique helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome.

NEW QUESTION # 526
The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

• A. minus actual cost [EV - AC].
• B. divided by actual cost [EV/AC].
• C. minus planned value [EV - PV].
• D. divided by planned value [EV/PV],

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Schedule variance. Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value. It is the amount by which the project is ahead or behind the planned delivery date, at a given point in time. It is a measure of schedule performance on a project. It is equal to the earned value (EV) minus the planned value (PV). The EVM schedule variance is a useful metric in that it can indicate when a project is falling behind or is ahead of its baseline schedule.
The EVM schedule variance will ultimately equal zero when the project is completed because all of the planned values will have been earned. Schedule variance is best used in conjunction with critical path method (CPM) scheduling and risk management.
Equation: SV = EV - PV

NEW QUESTION # 527
Which document describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results?

• A. Procurement management plan
• B. Request for quote
• C. Request for proposal
• D. Procurement statement of work

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
12.1.3.2 Procurement Statement of Work
The statement of work (SOW) for each procurement is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract. The procurement SOW describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. Sufficient detail can vary based on the nature of the item, the needs of the buyer, or the expected contract form. Information included in a SOW can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.
The procurement SOW is written to be clear, complete, and concise. It includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performance reporting or post-project operational support for the procured item. In some application areas, there are specific content and format requirements for a procurement SOW. Each individual procurement item requires a SOW; however, multiple products or services can be grouped as one procurement item within a single SOW.
The procurement SOW can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the procurement process until incorporated into a signed agreement.

NEW QUESTION # 528
In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

• A. They should be continuously engaged
• B. Involvement is needed only during project initiation
• C. They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews
• D. Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume E

NEW QUESTION # 529
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

• A. The best use of communication technology.
• B. Project costs to be reduced.
• C. The best use of communication methods.
• D. An efficient and effective communication flow.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 10.2 Manage Communications
Definition: The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it enables an efficient and effective communications flow between project stakeholders.
Inputs
1. Communications management plan
2. Work performance reports
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Communication technology
2. Communication models
3. Communication methods
4. Information management systems
5. Performance reporting
Outputs
1. Project communications
2. Project management plan updates
3. Project documents updates
4. Organizational process assets updates

NEW QUESTION # 530
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

• A. Presentation
• B. Facilitation
• C. Meeting management
• D. Listening

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 531
What are the five Project Management Process Groups?

• A. Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure
• B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending
• C. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
• D. Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process groups
Overview
Projects exist within an organization and do not operate as a closed system. They require input data from the organization and beyond, and deliver capabilities back to the organization. The project processes may generate information to improve the management of future projects and organizational process assets.
The PMBOK® Guide describes the nature of project management processes in terms of the integration between the processes, their interactions, and the purposes they serve. Project management processes are grouped into five categories known as Project Management Process Groups (or Process Groups):
Initiating Process Group. Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an

existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase. Within the Initiating processes, the initial scope is defined and initial financial resources are committed. Internal and external stakeholders who will interact and influence the overall outcome of the project are identified.
Planning Process Group. Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the

objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve. The Planning processes develop the project management plan and the project documents that will be used to carry out the project.
Executing Process Group. Those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project

management plan to satisfy the project specifications.
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. Those processes required to track, review, and regulate

the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.
Closing Process Group. Those processes performed to finalize all activities across all Process Groups

to formally close the project or phase.

NEW QUESTION # 532
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

• A. Staffing management plan
• B. Resource breakdown structure
• C. Project organizational chart
• D. Scope management plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Staffing management plan. The staffing management plan is a component of the human resource management plan that describes when and how project team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed. It describes how human resource requirements will be met. The staffing management plan can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed, depending upon the needs of the project.
The plan is updated continually during the project to direct ongoing team member acquisition and development actions.

NEW QUESTION # 533
Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

• A. Need to submit the monthly production report
• B. Need to lower production costs to remain competitive
• C. Need to define next month's production goals
• D. Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 534
Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

• A. Benchmarking
• B. Technical performance measurement
• C. Cost performance baseline
• D. Cost of quality

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
11.6.2.4 Technical Performance Measurement
Technical performance measurement compares technical accomplishments during project execution to the schedule of technical achievement. It requires the definition of objective, quantifable measures of technical performance, which can be used to compare actual results against targets. Such technical performance measures may include weight, transaction times, number of delivered defects, storage capacity, etc. Deviation, such as demonstrating more or less functionality than planned at a milestone, can help to forecast the degree of success in achieving the project's scope.

NEW QUESTION # 535
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

• A. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
• B. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline
• C. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
• D. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 536
......

Prerequisites

The PMI CAPM certification exam is intended for those professionals who are interested in or just starting a career in the project management domain. It is also intended for the members of project teams who would like to validate their project management expertise. This test also suits the individuals who do not possess project management experience but are interested in this professional sphere.

To be eligible for the PMI CAPM certification, the candidates need to have a high school diploma or its global equivalent and must satisfy the educational requirement, which is 23 hours of project management education completed by the time of sitting for the exam. The course offered by the vendor, Project Management Basics, fulfills this educational prerequisite.

 

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