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NEW QUESTION # 274
Which regulation defines security and privacy controls for Federal information systems and organizations?

• A. NIST-800-53
• B. PCI-DSS
• C. HIPAA
• D. EU Safe Harbor

Answer: A

Explanation:
NIST Special Publication 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for all U.S. federal information systems except those related to national security. It is published by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce.
NIST develops and issues standards, guidelines, and other publications to assist federal agencies in implementing the Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014 (FISMA) and to help with managing cost-effective programs to protect their information and information systems.

NEW QUESTION # 275
You perform a SYN (half-open) scan and receive a SYN/ACK packet in response. How should this result be interpreted?

• A. The scanned port is filtered
• B. The target IP is not reachable
• C. The scanned port is closed
• D. The scanned port is open

Answer: D

Explanation:
In CEH v13 Network Scanning, a SYN scan-also known as a half-open scan-is one of the most common and reliable techniques used to identify open TCP ports. This method involves sending a TCP SYN packet to a target port and analyzing the response without completing the full three-way handshake.
When a scanner sends a SYN packet:
* SYN/ACK response # The port is OPEN
* RST response # The port is CLOSED
* No response or ICMP unreachable # The port is FILTERED
In this scenario, the receipt of a SYN/ACK packet clearly indicates that the target system is willing to establish a TCP connection on that port. The scanner typically responds with a RST packet instead of an ACK to avoid completing the connection, thereby remaining stealthy.
Option B is therefore correct and aligns exactly with CEH v13 definitions.
Option A is incorrect because unreachable hosts do not respond with SYN/ACK.
Option C is incorrect because filtered ports usually do not respond or return ICMP errors.
Option D is incorrect because closed ports respond with RST, not SYN/ACK.
CEH v13 emphasizes SYN scanning as a preferred method due to its balance of accuracy and reduced logging. Understanding TCP flag behavior is fundamental for interpreting scan results correctly.

NEW QUESTION # 276
Samuel, a professional hacker, monitored and Intercepted already established traffic between Bob and a host machine to predict Bob's ISN. Using this ISN, Samuel sent spoofed packets with Bob's IP address to the host machine. The host machine responded with <| packet having an Incremented ISN. Consequently. Bob's connection got hung, and Samuel was able to communicate with the host machine on behalf of Bob. What is the type of attack performed by Samuel in the above scenario?

• A. UDP hijacking
• B. TCP/IP hacking
• C. Forbidden attack
• D. Blind hijacking

Answer: B

Explanation:
A TCP/IP hijack is an attack that spoofs a server into thinking it's talking with a sound client, once actually it' s communication with an assaulter that has condemned (or hijacked) the tcp session. Assume that the client has administrator-level privileges, which the attacker needs to steal that authority so as to form a brand new account with root-level access of the server to be used afterward. A tcp Hijacking is sort of a two-phased man- in-the-middle attack. The man-in-the-middle assaulter lurks within the circuit between a shopper and a server so as to work out what port and sequence numbers are being employed for the conversation.
First, the attacker knocks out the client with an attack, like Ping of Death, or ties it up with some reasonably ICMP storm. This renders the client unable to transmit any packets to the server. Then, with the client crashed, the attacker assumes the client's identity so as to talk with the server. By this suggests, the attacker gains administrator-level access to the server.
One of the most effective means of preventing a hijack attack is to want a secret, that's a shared secret between the shopper and also the server. looking on the strength of security desired, the key may be used for random exchanges. this is often once a client and server periodically challenge each other, or it will occur with each exchange, like Kerberos.

NEW QUESTION # 277
Mirai malware targets IoT devices. After infiltration, it uses them to propagate and create botnets that are then used to launch which types of attack?

• A. Password attack
• B. Birthday attack
• C. MITM attack
• D. DDoS attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Mirai malware primarily targets Internet of Things (IoT) devices with weak or default credentials. Once infected, these devices become part of a botnet that the attacker controls remotely. The primary use of Mirai botnets is to perform Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.
DDoS attacks flood a target (server, application, or network) with massive traffic, overwhelming resources and causing service outages.
Mirai gained infamy after being used in large-scale DDoS attacks, including against DNS provider Dyn, which caused widespread internet outages.
Incorrect Options:
A). MITM attacks involve intercepting communications.
B). Birthday attacks are cryptographic hash collision techniques.
D). Password attacks refer to credential brute-forcing; although Mirai uses default credentials, its main attack vector is DDoS.
Reference - CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 18: IoT and OT Hacking
Section: "IoT Malware"
Subsection: "Mirai Botnet and Real-World Attacks"
CEH Engage: IoT Botnet Simulation
=

NEW QUESTION # 278
During a red team assessment at Apex Technologies in Austin, ethical hacker Ryan tests whether employees can be tricked into disclosing sensitive data over the phone. He poses as a vendor requesting payment details and reaches out to several staff members. To evaluate defenses, the security team emphasizes that beyond general training, there is a practical step employees must apply in every interaction to avoid being deceived by such calls.
Which countermeasure should Apex Technologies prioritize to directly prevent this type of social engineering attempt?

• A. Use two-factor authentication
• B. Employees must verify the identity of individuals requesting information
• C. Conduct security awareness programs
• D. Establish policies and procedures

Answer: B

Explanation:
This scenario is a classic vishing (voice phishing) attempt: the attacker calls employees, impersonates a vendor, and tries to persuade them to disclose sensitive payment information. The most direct, practical countermeasure that employees can apply in every interaction is verifying the requester's identity before sharing any information. That means using a trusted verification method-such as calling back using an official number from an internal directory/vendor contract, confirming through a known manager or procurement channel, or following an established verification workflow-rather than trusting the caller ID, the caller's confidence, or claimed affiliation.
Option B is the best answer because it directly breaks the social engineering tactic being used: pretexting (posing as a vendor) relies on getting the victim to accept identity and urgency without validation. If employees consistently verify identity through independent channels, the attacker's pretext collapses and the request is denied or escalated. This is the most immediate control at the human decision point, where the data disclosure risk occurs.
Why the other choices are less direct:
Security awareness programs (A) are important, but the question asks for the practical step employees must apply in each interaction. Training supports the behavior; it is not the specific action that stops the call from succeeding.
Policies and procedures (C) provide governance and guidance, but the direct operational control during a phone call is still identity verification.
Two-factor authentication (D) protects login processes but does not prevent an employee from verbally disclosing payment details over the phone.
Therefore, the prioritized countermeasure is B. Employees must verify the identity of individuals requesting information.

NEW QUESTION # 279
During enumeration, a tool sends requests to UDP port 161 and retrieves a large list of installed software due to a publicly known community string. What enabled this technique to work so effectively?

• A. Remote access to encrypted Windows registry keys
• B. Unencrypted FTP services storing software data
• C. The SNMP agent allowed anonymous bulk data queries due to default settings
• D. SNMP trap messages logged in plain text

Answer: C

Explanation:
This scenario describes SNMP Enumeration, a technique covered under CEH v13 Reconnaissance and Enumeration. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) operates over UDP port 161 and is widely used for monitoring and managing network devices. A common and critical weakness arises when organizations leave default or publicly known community strings such as public (read-only) or private (read-write) unchanged.
CEH v13 explains that when an SNMP agent is configured with default community strings, it allows unauthenticated or weakly authenticated queries, enabling attackers to retrieve extensive system information. This includes installed software, running processes, system descriptions, network interfaces, and routing tables. The ability to perform bulk data queries using SNMP GET and WALK commands makes enumeration highly effective and fast.
Option B correctly identifies the root cause: misconfigured SNMP agents permitting anonymous or default access. The other options are incorrect because SNMP does not rely on FTP, registry access, or trap logging for enumeration. Traps (Option D) are unsolicited notifications sent to managers and are not used for querying system details.
CEH v13 strongly recommends disabling SNMP when not required, changing default community strings, restricting SNMP access via ACLs, and using SNMPv3, which supports authentication and encryption.
Therefore, Option B is the correct and CEH-aligned answer.

NEW QUESTION # 280
What hacking attack is challenge/response authentication used to prevent?

• A. Password cracking attacks
• B. Session hijacking attacks
• C. Replay attacks
• D. Scanning attacks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 281
CompanyXYZ has asked you to assess the security of their perimeter email gateway. From your office in New York, you craft a specially formatted email message and send it across the Internet to an employee of CompanyXYZ. The employee of CompanyXYZ is aware of your test. Your email message looks like this:
From: [email protected]
To: [email protected] Subject: Test message
Date: 4/3/2017 14:37
The employee of CompanyXYZ receives your email message.
This proves that CompanyXYZ's email gateway doesn't prevent what?

• A. Email Spoofing
• B. Email Phishing
• C. Email Masquerading
• D. Email Harvesting

Answer: A

Explanation:
Email spoofing is the fabrication of an email header in the hopes of duping the recipient into thinking the email originated from someone or somewhere other than the intended source. Because core email protocols do not have a built-in method of authentication, it is common for spam and phishing emails to use said spoofing to trick the recipient into trusting the origin of the message.
The ultimate goal of email spoofing is to get recipients to open, and possibly even respond to, a solicitation.
Although the spoofed messages are usually just a nuisance requiring little action besides removal, the more malicious varieties can cause significant problems and sometimes pose a real security threat.

NEW QUESTION # 282
When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST, HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server. You can detect all these methods (GET, POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using NMAP script engine. What Nmap script will help you with this task?

• A. http-git
• B. http-methods
• C. http-headers
• D. http enum

Answer: B

Explanation:
Nmap provides a scripting engine (NSE) that includes a script named http-methods. This script sends OPTIONS requests to the web server to determine which HTTP methods are supported. Identifying risky methods like PUT and DELETE helps detect misconfigured or vulnerable web servers.
Example command:
nmap --script http-methods -p 80 <target>
Reference - CEH v13 Official Study Guide:
Module 11: Hacking Web Applications
Quote:
"The Nmap script http-methods helps identify enabled HTTP methods including potentially dangerous ones like PUT and DELETE." Incorrect Options Explained:
B: http-enum is used to enumerate directories and applications, not methods.
C: http-headers retrieves HTTP headers.
D: http-git checks for Git repositories on web servers.

NEW QUESTION # 283
While conducting a covert penetration test on a UNIX-based infrastructure, the tester decides to bypass intrusion detection systems by sending specially crafted TCP packets with an unusual set of flags enabled.
These packets do not initiate or complete any TCP handshake. During the scan, the tester notices that when certain ports are probed, there is no response from the target, but for others, a TCP RST (reset) packet is received. The tester notes that this behavior consistently aligns with open and closed ports. Based on these observations, which scanning technique is most likely being used?

• A. ACK flag scan to evaluate firewall behavior
• B. Xmas scan leveraging RFC 793 quirks
• C. TCP Connect scan to complete the three-way handshake
• D. FIN scan using stealthy flag combinations

Answer: D

Explanation:
CEH describes FIN scans as stealthy scans that send packets with the FIN flag without initiating a TCP handshake. According to TCP RFC behavior, closed ports respond with RST packets while open ports ignore the probe, producing no response. This allows enumeration of port states while evading IDS systems that typically monitor SYN-based scans.

NEW QUESTION # 284
During an internal audit at a financial services firm in Mumbai, ethical hacker Meera was tasked with assessing lateral movement risks within the Windows-based domain environment. While monitoring internal network traffic, she noticed a strange broadcast from a workstation trying to resolve a non-existent host.
Suspecting protocol-level weakness, she responded swiftly using a pre-configured system. A few minutes later, she captured NTLMv2 hashes from several authenticated sessions across multiple departments. Later, her team successfully cracked one of the hashes offline and used the credentials to gain access to a sensitive internal reporting server. Which type of attack did Meera most likely execute?

• A. Kerberoasting
• B. Pass-the-Ticket Attack
• C. LLMNR/NBT-NS Poisoning
• D. Internal Monologue Attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is LLMNR/NBT-NS Poisoning. CEH system hacking coverage explains that when a Windows host cannot resolve a name through normal DNS, it may fall back to Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution or NetBIOS Name Service. An attacker on the local network can answer those broadcasts and falsely claim to be the requested resource. If the victim then attempts authentication, NTLM or NTLMv2 challenge-response data can be captured and later cracked offline. That is exactly what this question describes: a non-existent host lookup, a quick malicious response, capture of NTLMv2 hashes, and later credential cracking. Kerberoasting targets service tickets in Active Directory, not broadcast name resolution.
Pass-the-Ticket involves Kerberos tickets, and Internal Monologue abuse is a different authentication abuse pattern. CEH materials specifically connect LLMNR/NBT-NS poisoning with tools such as Responder and highlight that these protocols can be abused to collect hashes for lateral movement or privilege escalation. The scenario's sequence of name-resolution spoofing followed by hash capture is the defining signature of an LLMNR/NBT-NS poisoning attack.

NEW QUESTION # 285
Michael, an ethical hacker at a San Francisco-based fintech startup, is conducting a security assessment of the company's cloud-based payment processing platform, which uses Kubernetes, an open-source system for automating the deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications. During his review, Michael identified a feature that automatically replaces and reschedules containers from failed nodes to ensure high availability of services a critical requirement for uninterrupted payment operations. Based on his study of cloud container technology principles, which Kubernetes feature should Michael highlight as responsible for this capability?

• A. Container orchestration
• B. Container vulnerabilities
• C. Self-healing
• D. Kube-controller-manager

Answer: C

Explanation:
The capability described is Kubernetes self-healing, a core behavior emphasized in CEH cloud and container security coverage when discussing resilience, availability, and fault tolerance in containerized environments.
Self-healing means Kubernetes continuously monitors the desired state of workloads and automatically acts when the current state deviates due to failures. If a node crashes, a container exits unexpectedly, or a pod becomes unhealthy, Kubernetes responds by restarting containers, recreating pods, and rescheduling workloads onto healthy nodes to maintain service continuity. This directly matches the scenario where containers are "automatically replaced and rescheduled" from failed nodes to keep payment services highly available.
While several Kubernetes components participate in achieving this outcome, the feature name most aligned with the described behavior is self-healing. Kubernetes uses controllers and the scheduler to implement it:
deployments and replica sets ensure the correct number of pod replicas exist; liveness and readiness probes detect unhealthy containers; and when nodes become NotReady, pods are evicted and recreated elsewhere.
This is exactly how Kubernetes supports uninterrupted operations for critical applications such as payment processing platforms.
Option B, kube-controller-manager, is a control-plane component that runs multiple controllers, and it contributes to enforcing desired state, but the question asks for the feature capability rather than the specific internal process that provides it. Option C, container orchestration, is broader and includes deployment, scaling, and management, but it is less precise than self-healing for the specific behavior of automatic replacement and rescheduling after failures. Option A is unrelated to availability behavior.

NEW QUESTION # 286
You have retrieved the raw hash values from a Windows 2000 Domain Controller. Using social engineering, you come to know that they are enforcing strong passwords. Passwords must be at least 8 characters and use 3 of the 4 categories (lowercase, uppercase, numbers, special characters). With your knowledge of likely user habits, what would be the fastest type of password cracking attack to run against these hash values?

• A. Hybrid Attack
• B. Brute Force Attack
• C. Online Attack
• D. Dictionary Attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
A hybrid attack combines a dictionary and brute-force approach. Given that:
Passwords are required to be complex
Users still often choose predictable variations (e.g., Password123!, Welcome@2024) A hybrid attack is best suited because it applies common mutations to known words-much faster than full brute force and more effective than a plain dictionary attack.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 6: Password Cracking # Attack Techniques
CEH v13 Study Guide states:
"Hybrid attacks combine the speed of dictionary attacks with some of the thoroughness of brute-force. It's ideal when users use complex but predictable passwords." Incorrect Options:
A: Online attacks are slow and may trigger account lockouts.
B: Plain dictionary attacks won't cover variations like "P@ssw0rd!"
C: Brute-force would be too slow for complex passwords.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 6: Password Attack StrategiesOWASP Password Cracking Cheat Sheet
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NEW QUESTION # 287
Given the complexities of an organization's network infrastructure, a threat actor has exploited an unidentified vulnerability, leading to a major data breach. As a Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH), you are tasked with enhancing the organization's security stance. To ensure a comprehensive security defense, you recommend a certain security strategy. Which of the following best represents the strategy you would likely suggest and why?

• A. Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization.
• B. Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems.
• C. Adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense.
• D. Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security strategy that you would likely suggest is to adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense. This strategy is based on the concept of continuous monitoring and improvement of the security posture of an organization, using a feedback loop that integrates various security activities and technologies. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy aims to proactively identify and mitigate emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and risks, as well as to respond effectively and efficiently to security incidents and breaches. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy can help enhance the organization's security stance by providing the following benefits12:
It can reduce the attack surface and the exposure time of the organization's network infrastructure, by applying timely patches, updates, and configurations, as well as by implementing security controls and policies.
It can increase the visibility and awareness of the organization's network activity and behavior, by collecting, analyzing, and correlating data from various sources, such as logs, sensors, alerts, and reports.
It can improve the detection and prevention capabilities of the organization, by using advanced tools and techniques, such as artificial intelligence, machine learning, threat intelligence, and behavioral analytics, to identify and block malicious or anomalous patterns and indicators.
It can enhance the response and recovery processes of the organization, by using automated and orchestrated actions, such as isolation, quarantine, remediation, and restoration, to contain and resolve security incidents and breaches, as well as by conducting lessons learned and root cause analysis to prevent recurrence.
The other options are not as appropriate as option C for the following reasons:
A). Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization: This option is not sufficient because risk management is only one aspect of a comprehensive security strategy, and it does not address the dynamic and evolving nature of cyber threats and vulnerabilities. Risk management is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization's objectives and operations, as well as monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the risk treatment measures3. Risk management can help the organization prioritize and allocate resources for security, but it cannot guarantee the prevention or detection of security incidents and breaches, nor the response and recovery from them.
B). Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack: This option is not optimal because defense-in- depth is a traditional and static approach to security, and it may not be able to cope with the sophisticated and persistent attacks that exploit unknown or zero-day vulnerabilities. Defense-in-depth is a strategy of implementing multiple and diverse security controls and mechanisms at different layers of the organization's network infrastructure, such as perimeter, network, endpoint, application, and data, to provide redundancy and resilience against attacks4. Defense-in-depth can help the organization protect its assets and systems from unauthorized access or damage, but it cannot ensure the timely detection and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the continuous improvement of the security posture.
D). Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems: This option is not comprehensive because information assurance is a subset of cybersecurity, and it does not cover all the aspects of a holistic security strategy. Information assurance is a discipline of managing the risks associated with the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information and data, and ensuring the protection of the information and data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction5. Information assurance can help the organization safeguard its information and data from compromise or loss, but it does not address the prevention, detection, and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the adaptation and innovation of the security technologies and processes.
References:
1: Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Continual Adaptive Security: A New Approach to Cybersecurity | SecurityWeek.Com
3: Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
4: Defense in Depth - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: Information Assurance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION # 288
During a penetration test at an e-commerce company in Boston, ethical hacker Sophia launches an HTTP flood against the checkout page of the site. The simulated traffic consists of repeated GET and POST requests designed to overload application-layer resources. In response, the IT team activates a security tool that inspects and filters malicious HTTP traffic while allowing legitimate customer requests to pass, ensuring service continuity during the exercise.
Which DoS/DDoS protection tool is most likely being used in this scenario?

• A. Load Balancer
• B. Web Application Firewall
• C. Firewall
• D. Intrusion Prevention System

Answer: B

Explanation:
An HTTP flood is an application-layer (Layer 7) DoS/DDoS technique that targets web application resources by sending large volumes of seemingly valid HTTP GET/POST requests. Because the traffic can look
"legitimate" at the protocol level, controls that primarily focus on network/transport characteristics (such as basic firewalls) are often insufficient. The tool described in the scenario is explicitly inspecting and filtering malicious HTTP traffic while allowing legitimate customer requests-that behavior aligns most directly with a Web Application Firewall (WAF).
A WAF is designed to protect web applications by analyzing HTTP/S requests and responses, applying security rules that detect and block abnormal or malicious patterns. In an HTTP flood scenario, a WAF can enforce rate limiting, detect request anomalies (e.g., repeated requests to resource-intensive endpoints like checkout), identify bot-like behavior, and apply signatures/behavioral policies to mitigate attacks while continuing to permit valid users. The key clue is the focus on HTTP-level inspection and filtering to maintain service continuity-a classic WAF use case during Layer 7 attacks.
Why the other options are less suitable:
A Load Balancer (A) improves availability by distributing traffic across servers, but it does not inherently inspect and filter malicious HTTP requests. It can help absorb load, yet it's not primarily a security inspection
/filtering control.
An Intrusion Prevention System (C) can block malicious activity, but many IPS deployments are stronger at network/transport-layer patterns and may not provide the same depth of application-aware HTTP policy enforcement as a WAF for targeted web endpoints.
A traditional Firewall (D) mainly filters by IP/port/protocol and cannot reliably distinguish malicious vs legitimate HTTP GET/POST floods when they use allowed ports (80/443).

NEW QUESTION # 289
There are multiple cloud deployment options depending on how isolated a customer's resources are from those of other customers. Shared environments share the costs and allow each customer to enjoy lower operations expenses. One solution Is for a customer to Join with a group of users or organizations to share a cloud environment. What is this cloud deployment option called?

• A. Private
• B. Hybrid
• C. Public
• D. Community

Answer: D

Explanation:
The purpose of this idea is to permit multiple customers to figure on joint projects and applications that belong to the community, where it's necessary to possess a centralized clouds infrastructure. In other words, Community Cloud may be a distributed infrastructure that solves the precise problems with business sectors by integrating the services provided by differing types of clouds solutions.
The communities involved in these projects, like tenders, business organizations, and research companies, specialise in similar issues in their cloud interactions. Their shared interests may include concepts and policies associated with security and compliance considerations, and therefore the goals of the project also .
Community Cloud computing facilitates its users to spot and analyze their business demands better.
Community Clouds could also be hosted during a data center, owned by one among the tenants, or by a third- party cloud services provider and may be either on-site or off-site.
Community Cloud Examples and Use CasesCloud providers have developed Community Cloud offerings, and a few organizations are already seeing the advantages . the subsequent list shows a number of the most scenarios of the Community Cloud model that's beneficial to the participating organizations.
* Multiple governmental departments that perform transactions with each other can have their processing systems on shared infrastructure. This setup makes it cost-effective to the tenants, and may also reduce their data traffic.
Benefits of Community CloudsCommunity Cloud provides benefits to organizations within the community, individually also as collectively. Organizations don't need to worry about the safety concerns linked with Public Cloud due to the closed user group.
This recent cloud computing model has great potential for businesses seeking cost-effective cloud services to collaborate on joint projects, because it comes with multiple advantages.
Openness and ImpartialityCommunity Clouds are open systems, and that they remove the dependency organizations wear cloud service providers. Organizations are able to do many benefits while avoiding the disadvantages of both public and personal clouds.
* Ensures compatibility among each of its users, allowing them to switch properties consistent with their individual use cases. They also enable companies to interact with their remote employees and support the utilization of various devices, be it a smartphone or a tablet. This makes this sort of cloud solution more flexible to users' demands.
* Consists of a community of users and, as such, is scalable in several aspects like hardware resources, services, and manpower. It takes under consideration demand growth, and you simply need to increase the user-base.
Flexibility and ScalabilityHigh Availability and ReliabilityYour cloud service must be ready to make sure the availability of knowledge and applications in the least times. Community Clouds secure your data within the same way as the other cloud service, by replicating data and applications in multiple secure locations to guard them from unforeseen circumstances.
Cloud possesses redundant infrastructure to form sure data is out there whenever and wherever you would like it. High availability and reliability are critical concerns for any sort of cloud solution.
Security and ComplianceTwo significant concerns discussed when organizations believe cloud computing are data security and compliance with relevant regulatory authorities. Compromising each other's data security isn't profitable to anyone during a Community Cloud.
* the power to dam users from editing and downloading specific datasets.
* Making sensitive data subject to strict regulations on who has access to Sharing sensitive data unique to a specific organization would bring harm to all or any the members involved.
* What devices can store sensitive data.
Users can configure various levels of security for his or her data. Common use cases:Convenience and ControlConflicts associated with convenience and control don't arise during a Community Cloud. Democracy may be a crucial factor the Community Cloud offers as all tenants share and own the infrastructure and make decisions collaboratively. This setup allows organizations to possess their data closer to them while avoiding the complexities of a personal Cloud.
Less Work for the IT DepartmentHaving data, applications, and systems within the cloud means you are doing not need to manage them entirely. This convenience eliminates the necessity for tenants to use extra human resources to manage the system. Even during a self-managed solution, the work is split among the participating organizations.
Environment SustainabilityIn the Community Cloud, organizations use one platform for all their needs, which dissuades them from investing in separate cloud facilities. This shift introduces a symbiotic relationship between broadening and shrinking the utilization of cloud among clients. With the reduction of organizations using different clouds, resources are used more efficiently, thus resulting in a smaller carbon footprint.

NEW QUESTION # 290
What is the algorithm used by LM for Windows 2000 SAM?

• A. MD4
• B. DES
• C. SSL
• D. SHA

Answer: B

Explanation:
LAN Manager (LM) hashes are legacy password hashing methods used in older Windows systems (including Windows 2000 for backward compatibility). LM hashing works by:
Converting the password to uppercase.
Padding or truncating it to 14 characters.
Splitting it into two 7-character halves.
Using each half as a DES key to encrypt a known constant ("KGS!@#$%").
Therefore, LM hashing uses the DES (Data Encryption Standard) algorithm.
From CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 6: Malware Threats # Password Storage and LM Hash Structure
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 6: Windows Password StorageMicrosoft Security Documentation
- LM/NTLM Authentication
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NEW QUESTION # 291
You are working as a threat intelligence analyst for a fintech startup that recently discovered a spike in credential stuffing attempts against its admin panel. The security team believes this may be due to leaked internal files circulating on underground forums. You are tasked with investigating potential exposure on the dark web without directly interacting with any service or forum. You decide to use advanced search filters to identify documents hosted on hidden services that may contain sensitive access details. The team suspects these documents might include account-related keywords in their titles.
Which of the following search queries would best support this investigation?

• A. filetype:pdf intitle:"secure login" site:onion
• B. filetype:pdf intitle:"admin access" site:onion
• C. filetype:docx intitle:"user accounts" site:onion
• D. filetype:docx intitle:"login credentials"

Answer: B

Explanation:
This task describes passive reconnaissance using advanced search operators, a technique covered in CEH as search engine reconnaissance or Google dorking. The objective is to find potentially exposed documents on hidden services while avoiding direct interaction with forums or services. The most important element in the query is restricting results to hidden service domains using the site:onion operator. Any option that does not include site:onion is less suitable because it will return results from the public web rather than from .onion resources.
Option A is the strongest fit because it combines three high-value filters: filetype:pdf to focus on document artifacts that are commonly leaked or shared, intitle:"admin access" to target titles suggesting privileged access or administrative information, and site:onion to restrict the scope to hidden services. In CEH reporting and threat intelligence workflows, targeting high-signal keywords such as admin access, credentials, password list, or vpn access in document metadata is a practical way to identify likely leak sources without active engagement.
Option B lacks site:onion, so it fails the hidden-service requirement. Option C includes site:onion but the phrase secure login is more generic and may return many benign pages, reducing precision. Option D includes site:onion and filetype targeting, but user accounts is broader and less indicative of immediate access data than admin access. Therefore, A best supports efficient passive discovery of high-risk documents relevant to credential exposure on hidden services.

NEW QUESTION # 292
You are tasked to configure the DHCP server to lease the last 100 usable IP addresses in subnet 10.1.4.0/23.
Which of the following IP addresses could be leased as a result of the new configuration?

• A. 210.1.55.200
• B. 10.1.5.200
• C. 10.1.4.156
• D. 10.1.4.254

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Subnet 10.1.4.0/23 includes addresses from:
10.1.4.0 to 10.1.5.255
Total = 512 IPs (510 usable)
Last 100 usable IPs would be:
Start: 10.1.5.155 to 10.1.5.254
Only option C (10.1.5.200) falls within that range.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 3: Subnetting & IP Addressing
Reference:IP Subnet Calculators and RFC 950
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NEW QUESTION # 293
During security awareness training, which scenario best describes a tailgating social engineering attack?

• A. An email urges employees to enter credentials for an urgent system update
• B. An attacker impersonates a customer to recover account credentials
• C. An attacker leaves a malicious USB labeled "Employee Bonus List"
• D. A person gains access to a secure building by following an authorized employee through a locked door

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) Social Engineering module defines tailgating as a physical social engineering attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a restricted area.
Option C precisely matches CEH's definition.
Option A is pretexting.
Option B is baiting.
Option D is phishing.
CEH stresses physical security awareness as critical as cyber defenses.

NEW QUESTION # 294
During a red team engagement, an ethical hacker is tasked with testing the security measures of an organization's wireless network. The hacker needs to select an appropriate tool to carry out a session hijacking attack. Which of the following tools should the hacker use to effectively perform session hijacking and subsequent security analysis, given that the target wireless network has the Wi-Fi Protected Access-preshared key (WPA-PSK) security protocol in place?

• A. Hetty
• B. Droidsheep
• C. bettercap
• D. FaceNiff

Answer: C

Explanation:
bettercap is a tool that can perform session hijacking attacks on wireless networks, among other network security and penetration testing tasks. bettercap can capture and manipulate network traffic, perform man-in- the-middle attacks, spoof and sniff protocols, inject custom payloads, and more1.
bettercap can perform session hijacking attacks on wireless networks that use the WPA-PSK security protocol by exploiting the four-way handshake process that occurs when a client connects to a wireless access point.
The four-way handshake is used to establish a shared encryption key between the client and the access point, based on the pre-shared key (PSK) that is configured on both devices. However, the four-way handshake also exposes some information that can be used to crack the PSK offline, such as the nonce values, the MAC addresses, and the message integrity code (MIC) of the packets2.
bettercap can capture the four-way handshake packets using its Wi-Fi module and save them in a file. The file can then be fed to a tool like Hashcat or Aircrack-ng to crack the PSK using brute force or dictionary attacks. Once the PSK is obtained, bettercap can use it to decrypt the wireless traffic and perform session hijacking attacks on the clients connected to the access point3.
Therefore, bettercap is an appropriate tool to carry out a session hijacking attack on a wireless network that uses the WPA-PSK security protocol.
References:
* bettercap: the Swiss Army knife for 802.11, BLE and Ethernet networks reconnaissance and MITM attacks
* How the WPA2 Enterprise Wireless Security Protocol Works
* Cracking WPA/WPA2 Passwords with Bettercap and Hashcat

NEW QUESTION # 295
Todd has been asked by the security officer to purchase a counter-based authentication system. Which of the following best describes this type of system?

• A. A biometric system that bases authentication decisions on behavioral attributes.
• B. A biometric system that bases authentication decisions on physical attributes.
• C. An authentication system that uses passphrases that are converted into virtual passwords.
• D. An authentication system that creates one-time passwords that are encrypted with secret keys.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 296
You just set up a security system in your network. In what kind of system would you find the following string of characters used as a rule within its configuration? alert tcp any any -> 192.168.100.0/24 21 (msg: ""FTP on the network!"";)

• A. A firewall IPTable
• B. FTP Server rule
• C. A Router IPTable
• D. An Intrusion Detection System

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 297
An ethical hacker is testing a web application of a financial firm. During the test, a 'Contact Us' form's input field is found to lack proper user input validation, indicating a potential Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerability. However, the application has a stringent Content Security Policy (CSP) disallowing inline scripts and scripts from external domains but permitting scripts from its own domain. What would be the hacker's next step to confirm the XSS vulnerability?

• A. Utilize a script hosted on the application's domain to test the form
• B. Load a script from an external domain to test the vulnerability
• C. Inject a benign script inline to the form to see if it executes
• D. Try to disable the CSP to bypass script restrictions

Answer: A

Explanation:
The hacker's next step to confirm the XSS vulnerability would be to utilize a script hosted on the application' s domain to test the form. This is because the application's CSP allows scripts from its own domain, but not from inline or external sources. Therefore, the hacker can try to inject a payload that references a script file on the same domain as the application, such as:
<script src="/path/to/script.js"></script>
where script.js contains some benign code, such as alert('XSS') or print('XSS'). If the script executes in the browser, then the hacker has confirmed the XSS vulnerability. Otherwise, the CSP has blocked the script and prevented the XSS attack.
The other options are not feasible or effective for the following reasons:
A). Try to disable the CSP to bypass script restrictions: This option is not feasible because the hacker cannot disable the CSP on the server side, and the browser enforces the CSP on the client side. The hacker would need to modify the browser settings or use a browser extension to disable the CSP, but this would not affect the victim's browser or the application's security.
B). Inject a benign script inline to the form to see if it executes: This option is not effective because the application's CSP disallows inline scripts, meaning scripts that are embedded in the HTML code. Therefore, the hacker would not be able to inject a script tag or an event handler attribute that contains some code, such as:
<script>alert('XSS')</script> or <input type="text" onfocus="alert('XSS')"> The CSP would block these scripts and prevent the XSS attack.
D). Load a script from an external domain to test the vulnerability: This option is not effective because the application's CSP disallows scripts from external domains, meaning scripts that are loaded from a different domain than the application. Therefore, the hacker would not be able to inject a script tag that references a script file on another domain, such as:
<script src="https://example.com/script.js"></script>
The CSP would block these scripts and prevent the XSS attack.
References:
1: Content Security Policy (CSP) - HTTP | MDN
2: What is Content Security Policy (CSP) | Header Examples | Imperva
3: Content-Security-Policy (CSP) Header Quick Reference
4: What is cross-site scripting (XSS)? - PortSwigger
5: Cross Site Scripting (XSS) | OWASP Foundation
6: The Impact of Cross-Site Scripting Vulnerabilities and their Prevention
7: XSS Vulnerability 101: Identify and Stop Cross-Site Scripting

NEW QUESTION # 298
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